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Cloud Security Alliance CCSK (Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge) Certification Exam is an essential certification for IT professionals and security experts who are responsible for securing cloud environments. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification is vendor-neutral, covers a wide range of topics, and is based on the industry's best practices for cloud security. By earning the CCSK certification, professionals can demonstrate their expertise in cloud security and gain a competitive edge in the job market.
The CCSK exam is designed for IT and security professionals who are involved in cloud computing. CCSK exam covers a wide range of topics, including cloud architecture, security concepts and design, compliance and legal issues, and data security. CCSK exam is divided into two parts: the first part is a multiple-choice exam that tests the candidate's knowledge of cloud security concepts, while the second part is a practical exam that tests the candidate's ability to apply these concepts in real-world scenarios. The CCSK certification is recognized globally as a standard for cloud security knowledge and is highly regarded by employers in the IT and security industries.
NEW QUESTION # 15
CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?
- A. Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned or managed user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.
- B. Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system- system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.
- C. All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.
- D. None of the above
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 16
You, as a cloud customer, will more control on event and diagnostic data in SaaS environment than in the PaaS or IaaS environment.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is false because it will be exactly opposite. ln SaaS environment, you will least amount of controls on event and diagnostic data. Your control will, in fact, increase as you for from SaaS to PaaS and eventually, in IaaS, you will have full control Event and diagnostic data (except of platform logs which is maintained by the cloud service provider).
NEW QUESTION # 17
What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?
- A. The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.
- B. The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.
- C. The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.
- D. The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.
- E. The cloud computing companies own all customer data.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 18
When Database as a Service is offered on Platform as a Service(PaaS) model, who is responsible for security features that needs to applied to the Databases?
- A. Cloud Consumer
- B. Cloud Service Provider
- C. Cloud Carrier
- D. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is a tricky question.
When using a Database as a Service, the provider manages fundamental security, patching, and core configuration, while the cloud user is responsible for everything else, including which security features of the database to use, managing accounts, or even authentication methods.
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following Standards is normally followed to manage Enterprise Risk?
- A. ISO 27032
- B. ISO 27001
- C. ISO 27005
- D. ISO 31000
Answer: D
Explanation:
ISO 31000 provides principles and guidelines to do Enterprise Risk Management.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the vulnerabilities is inherited from general software development practice in PaaS environment?
- A. DNS spoofing
- B. Backdoors
- C. DDoS
- D. Cross
Answer: B
Explanation:
As a general practice of software development. Developer tend to leave backdoors so that they can come back later to fix issues.
NEW QUESTION # 21
When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?
- A. Their own virtual instances in the cloud
- B. The network components controlled by the CSP
- C. The CSP server facility
- D. The CSP office spaces
- E. The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 22
All of the following are type of access controls except:
- A. Administrative
- B. Physical
- C. Technical
- D. Natural
Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no control as such for Natural control.
There are three types of controls
1. Physical
2. Technical
3. Administrative
NEW QUESTION # 23
A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?
- A. A validation process
- B. A support table
- C. An entry log
- D. An access log
- E. An entitlement matrix
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 24
Enterprise Risk Management is part of over all information Risk Management of the organization
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is False and it is other way round. Information Risk management is part of Enterprise Risk.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?
- A. Elastic infrastructure
- B. Segregation by default
- C. Decreased use of micro-services
- D. Default deny
- E. Fewer serverless configurations
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of following is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor?
- A. VM HBR
- B. VM Escape
- C. VM rootkit
- D. VM DOS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual machine escape is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor. Such an exploit could give the attacker access to the host operating system and all other virtual machines(VMs) running on that host.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is also knows as white-box test and can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection.
buffer overflows. unhandled error conditions. and potential backdoors?
- A. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
- B. Threat Modelling
- C. Dynamic Application Security Testing(DAST)
- D. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static application security testing(SAST) is generally considered a white-box test, where the application test performs an analysis of the application source code, byte code, and binaries without executing the application code. SAST is used to determine coding errors and omissions that are indicative of security vulnerabilities. SAST is often used as a test method while the tool is under development(early in the development lifecycle).
SAST can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection, buffer overflows, unhandled error conditions, and potential backdoors.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following are two most effective ways of protection against data breaches in the cloud environment?
- A. Multifactor Authentication and Encryption
- B. Contracts and SLAs
- C. Encryption and Honeypot
- D. Data Loss Prevention techniques and Web Application Firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multifactor Authentication and Encryption are most effective protect mechanisms against data breaches in cloud environment. Other options do form part of overall security strategy in cloud but Option D is the strongest contender for the answer.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which one of the following is not a risk mitigation strategy?
- A. Avoidance
- B. Transfer
- C. Suppression
- D. Acceptance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Following are the risk mitigation strategies
NEW QUESTION # 30
An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to
- A. Schedule vulnerability test at night
- B. Use application layer testing tools exclusively
- C. Use techniques to evade cloud provider's detection systems
- D. Use network layer testing tools exclusively
- E. Obtain provider permission for test
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 31
ln which service model. does cloud security provider has least responsibility?
- A. IaaS
- B. XaaS
- C. PaaS
- D. SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
In IaaS service model. CSP is responsible only for the physical infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is NOT a key subsystem recommended for monitoring in cloud environments?
- A. Cable
- B. Disk
- C. Network
- D. CPU
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network, CPU and Disk(storage) are key subsystems in cloud environment that should be monitored.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following allows organizations to access, report, and obtain evidence of actions, controls, and processes that were performed or run by a specified user?
- A. Auditability
- B. Acceptability
- C. Accountability
- D. Traceability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Auditability is the trait where organisations can collect and verify the correctness of the organisations processes and procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?
- A. Configuration and VM sprawl issues
- B. Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor
- C. All of the above
- D. The hypervisor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 35
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