Feb-2024 Realistic PCCN Exam Dumps with Accurate & Updated Questions
PCCN Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
AACN PCCN exam is a certification exam designed specifically for nurses working in progressive care units (PCU) or similar healthcare settings. PCCN exam is administered by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) and is meant to assess the nurse's knowledge and skills in managing and caring for patients with complex health conditions.
NEW QUESTION # 61
The 6-minute-walk test is used in the diagnosis of:
- A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
- B. Asthma
- C. Interstitial lung disease
- D. Chronic obstructive lung disease
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pulmonary arterial hypertension
The 6-minute-walk test is a measurement of distance used to monitor exercise tolerance, response to therapy and disease progression in pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 266.
NEW QUESTION # 62
In this type of aortic dissection, the original tear begins and is contained in the ascending aorta:
- A. Type II
- B. Type I
- C. Type IV
- D. Type III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Type II
In type I, the original intimal tear begins in the ascending aorta and the dissection extends to the descending aorta. In type II, the tear begins and is contained in the ascending aorta. In type III, the intimal tear begins and is contained in the descending aorta. There is no type IV aortic aneurysm dissection.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 481.
NEW QUESTION # 63
The stages of COPD can be assessed by all of the following except:
- A. Spirometry
- B. Chest x-ray
- C. Body mass index
- D. Functional dyspnea
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: The stages of COPD can be assessed by all of the above except chest x-ray. Functional dyspnea, body mass index, and spirometry are used to assess the different stages of COPD. The spirometry helps in measuring the ratio of forced expiratory volume in the first second of expiration after complete inhalation to total forced vital capacity. The chest x-ray has no role in defining the stages of COPD.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Evidence-based strategies for the prevention of infection in central lines include the use of which of the following barriers during catheter insertion?
- A. Mask, sterile gown, sterile gloves, large sterile drape
- B. Mask, sterile gloves, large sterile drape
- C. Sterile gown, sterile gloves, large sterile drape
- D. Mask, cap, sterile gown, sterile gloves, large sterile drape
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Mask, cap, sterile gown, sterile gloves, large sterile drape According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the incidence of central line- associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI) decreased by 50% from 2009 to 2014. However, these infections continue to cause the death of thousands of hospitalized patients each year. Several practices have been evaluated to decrease the risk of these infections, and evidence-based strategies include the use of maximal sterile barriers during catheter insertion.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 292-293.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A 46-year-old man was admitted to hospital due to cerebrovascular accident. Now he is not able to take any food from his mouth, and has been passed to naso-gastric tube for feeding. What does the patient have?
- A. Dysphagia
- B. Dysarthria
- C. Dysuria
- D. Dyspnea
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The patient has dysphagia, meaning he has an inability or difficulty in swallowing. Stroke and hospital admission are the common causes of dysphagia.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A young male smoker presented to OPD having experienced left-sided, dull, pleuritic chest pain for the last 3 days. Examination showed that he had decreased breath sounds on left side of chest; in fact, the chest was almost silent. However, young man was in no distress. What is the investigation you would most likely carry out if the patient is stable?
- A. Blood complete picture
- B. Spirometry
- C. Chest x-ray (PA view)
- D. Brochoscopy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The most likely investigation to be carried out on the patient experiencing pleuritic chest pain but showing no distress, and whose examination reveals an almost silent chest, is a Chest x-ray (PA view). That will show the exact cause of absent breath sounds in the chest. As the patient is a smoker, the chance of Spontaneous Pneumothorax should always be ruled out by having a look at the chest x- ray.
NEW QUESTION # 67
In Q wave Myocardial Infarction, the peak CK levels occur in:
- A. 36 hours
- B. 30 hours
- C. 27 hours
- D. 12 hours
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: In Q wave Myocardial Infarction, the peak CK levels occur in 27 hours. Myocardial Infarction occurs due to the imbalance in the demand and supply of oxygen to the heart. Q-wave MI is the transmural infarction in which the infarction and necrosis is prolonged and the peak CK levels occur in
27 hours.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Clinical situations that decrease the accuracy of pulse oximetry for assessing oxygen status include:
- A. Vasoactive drugs, hypertension, low cardiac output
- B. Nail polish applications, movement of the sensor, hyperthermia
- C. Vasoconstriction, hypertension, nail polish application
- D. Hypotension, vasoconstriction, hypothermia
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hypotension, vasoconstriction, hypothermia
Clinical situations that decrease the accuracy of pulse oximetry include:
* Hypotension
* Low cardiac output states
* Vasoconstriction or vasoactive drugs
* Hypothermia
* Poor skin adherence or movement of the sensor
* Direct exposure to ambient light
* Certain nail polish applications and treatments
* Venous pulsation
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 105-106.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Risk factors for the development of pulmonary thromboemboli include:
- A. Scuba diving, malignancy, pancreatitis
- B. Long bone fracture, positive pressure ventilation, estrogen
- C. Immobility, paralysis, lipid infusions
- D. Obesity, advanced age, malignancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Obesity, advanced age, malignancy
Risk factors for the development of pulmonary thromboemboli include:
* Obesity
* Prior history of thromboembolism
* Advanced age
* Chemotherapy
* Malignancy
* Estrogen
* Immobility
* Acute spinal cord injury with paralysis
* Heart failure
* Trauma
* Surgery
* Inherited thrombophilia
* Nephrotic syndrome
* Central venous catheters
* Inflammatory bowel disease
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 271.
NEW QUESTION # 70
All of the following statements related to mycophenolate mofetil are true except:
- A. It has potent cytotoxic effects on lymphocytes and is used for cardiac transplantation patients
- B. It suppresses antibody formation against B lymphocytes
- C. Side effects include gastrointestinal tract ulcerations, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
- D. It is taken weekly in a dose of 1.5 grams
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is taken weekly in a dose of 1.5 grams
Mycophenolate mofetil is given in 1.5-g dose twice a day following cardiac transplant. In addition to gastrointestinal side effects, it has severe neutropenic effects and can cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 487-488.
NEW QUESTION # 71
On the electrocardiogram, atrial muscle depolarization is represented by which of the following?
- A. T wave
- B. U wave
- C. PR interval
- D. P wave
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: P wave
On electrocardiogram, the P wave represents atrial muscle depolarization. It is usually 2.5 mm or less in height and 0.11 second or less in duration. P waves can be upright, inverted, or biphasic depending on how the electrical impulse conducts through the atria and on which lead it is being recorded.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 39.
NEW QUESTION # 72
All of the following are types of synthetic insulin except:
- A. Intralente
- B. Regular
- C. Humalog (lispro H)
- D. NPH
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the following are types of synthetic insulin except intralente. There are different types of insulin with varying action times which help in maintiaing the levels of glucose in the body.
Duration of action of insulin depends on the individual's metabolic rates, intake, and level of activity.
Intralente is not a type of insulin; rather Ultralente is the correct name of a type of insulin.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Trousseau sign is considered to be positive when carpopedal spasm is produced in response to occlusion of circulation to the extremity for:
- A. 30 seconds
- B. Three minutes
- C. 90 seconds
- D. One minute
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Three minutes
Trousseau sign is considered to be positive when carpopedal spasm is produced in response to occlusion of circulation to the extremity for three minutes.
Trousseau sign is an indication of latent tetany in which carpal spasm occurs when the upper arm is compressed, as by a tourniquet or a blood pressure cuff. Trousseau sign is positive in conditions such as hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 379.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A 29-year-old healthy male, fit for any kind of surgery, underwent a cholecystectomy under general anesthesia 72 hours back, and now presents with mild tachypnea. On clinical exam, patient is having crackles and occasional wheezing, cyanosis, third heart sound and tachycardia. What is the likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome/ Acute lung injury
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Acute, severe asthma
- D. Pulmonary TB
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The likely diagnosis is acute respiratory distress syndrome/Acute lung injury. After a cholecystectomy under general anesthesia, if patient is having crackles and occasional wheezing, cyanosis, third heart sound and tachycardia, the most likely diagnosis is acute respiratory distress syndrome because it usually occurs after surgery within 72 hours. Moreover, patient has tachypnea, crackles and is wheezing.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following statements related to dysarthria is true?
- A. The two primary categories of dysarthria are comprehension and repetition
- B. The two primary categories of dysarthria are motor and sensory
- C. The two primary categories of dysarthria are conduction and anomic
- D. Dysarthria is difficulty with speech production
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Dysarthria is difficulty with speech production
Dysarthria is difficulty with speech production due to weakness or lack of coordination of the muscles of speech. A patient with dysarthria has slurred speech and is difficult to understand, but the content of speech is appropriate. Dysarthria often becomes apparent during the assessment of mental status.
Aphasia is difficulty with language; there are two major categories of aphasia: motor and sensory.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 300.
NEW QUESTION # 76
All of the following statements are true related to Ventavis (iloprost) except:
- A. It is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation
- B. It is a prostacyclin vasodilator of the pulmonary arterial vascular beds
- C. It is a systemic vasodilator
- D. It is used in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension and is administered per continuous intravenous infusion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is used in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension and is administered per continuous intravenous infusion Ventavis (iloprost) is an intermittent inhalation treatment using a medication-specific nebulizer for pulmonary arterial hypertension.
This is a costly medication and patients must be able to self-administer.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 266.
NEW QUESTION # 77
All of the following are Broad spectrum antibiotics except?
- A. None of the above
- B. Fluoroquinolones
- C. Tetracyclines
- D. Macrolides
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: All of the following are Broad spectrum antibiotics except Macrolides. These are medium spectrum antibiotics which are effective against few gram positive and few gram negative bacteria.
NEW QUESTION # 78
To confirm a diagnosis of myocardial infarction, the nurse would expect the physician to order which laboratory tests?
- A. Tropin I, aPTT, and myoglobin
- B. Creatine kinase, tropin T, and sedimentation rate
- C. Tropin T, tropin I, myoglobin, and creatine kinase
- D. Myoglobin, creatine kinase, and sedimentation rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Tropin T, tropin I, myoglobin, and creatine kinase
When they die, cardiac myocytes release significant amounts of myoglobin, tropin I and T, as well as cardiac-specific creatine kinase (CK-MB), causing elevations in these laboratory values and confirming the diagnosis of myocardial infarction.
Reference:
Burns,
Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 222-223.
NEW QUESTION # 79
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